Annachie wrote:Zakharra wrote:The US Supreme Court disagrees with your definition. It has come down repeatedly on the side that the 2nd Amendment is for the individual's right to have firearms.
Not true. The supreme court has only recently come down that way.
Every case involves Scalia and Kennedy, and actually flys in the face of previous decisions and opinions.
Indeed, the idea that the 2nd establishes an effectively unqualified individual right to bear arms... a conclusion reached by effectively stating that half the amendment was placed in the document as meaningless decoration, simply ignoring all historical context regarding that amendment and how the formation of the militias was integral to it... is a purely modern invention of some justices who decided to totally rewrite US case law and toss all precedent on the matter.
For the first couple hundred years of the existence of the country it was clearly understood that the 2nd was a collective, not an individual, right to arms. The people had the right to bear arms in order that there be effective militias formed by said people. Hence in 1939 for example when the Supreme Court stated flat out that a ban on sawed off shot guns was constitutional because those weapons did not have "some reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia". It was clearly understood that the 2nd had a specific purpose, and that purpose was made clear by the wording of the amendment itself.
As opposed to the opinions of a majority of the current Court, who apparently think the 2nd provides a right to bear arms because "Yay! Guns!" and that the first half of the amendment is just there for a but of artistic embellishment to make the sentence flow off the tongue or something... because the framers were totally into putting pointless meaningless bits of fluff that didn't have any bearing on the meaning of the document in the Constitution.